Matt79
Global Moderator
I'm asking because in his autobiography Bob Simpson clearly refers to tests between Australia-WI as "Ashes cricket". Not once, but half-a-dozen times - it wasn't a typo. In the context it appeared he was clearly using "Ashes" cricket to refer to being the contest between the two best teams in world cricket, and that Australia, which then held the Ashes could lose them to the WIs...
Maybe its just a personal thing with him, but I'm just wondering whether that interpretation used to be the common one, and the specification that its always Australia-England only came about once it was clear that that contest was necessarily the two best teams in the world?
Anyone got any ideas?
Maybe its just a personal thing with him, but I'm just wondering whether that interpretation used to be the common one, and the specification that its always Australia-England only came about once it was clear that that contest was necessarily the two best teams in the world?
Anyone got any ideas?