Has "Ashes" cricket always referred only to Australia-England?

[SJS]

agree with Goughy on the ghost writer front

Shocking that one using his name as the writer shouldnt read the proof before sending it for printing.

 

[Goughy]

Shocking that one using his name as the writer shouldnt read the proof before sending it for printing.

I doubt it would be the first time.

 

[Matt79]

Surprising if it was a ghost writer though. It was a pretty controversial book when it first came out, as he accused both Ian Meckiff and Charlie Griffith of knowingly cheating and slams Sobers as a bad sport. He ended up having to remove the stuff about Meckiff from the reprints - and in all of that, I've never heard anything about it being done by a ghostwriter emerging during the washup - although Simpson never resiled from his views on the subject so maybe he didn't feel the need to flag that.

 

[Richard]

Someone should contact the publishers about this.

 

[Matt79]

Not sure whether they still exist. It was originally published 40 years ago, and the reprint I have is thirty years old.

 

[neville cardus]

I'm asking because in his autobiography Bob Simpson clearly refers to tests between Australia-WI as "Ashes cricket". Not once, but half-a-dozen times - it wasn't a typo. In the context it appeared he was clearly using "Ashes" cricket to refer to being the contest between the two best teams in world cricket, and that Australia, which then held the Ashes could lose them to the WIs...

Maybe its just a personal thing with him, but I'm just wondering whether that interpretation used to be the common one, and the specification that its always Australia-England only came about once it was clear that that contest was necessarily the two best teams in the world?

Anyone got any ideas?

Bad ghost.

 

[neville cardus]

Cor, I'm getting sick of being beaten to these things.

 

[Richard]

Come on more often then.

 

[roseboy64]

Aye.

 

[neville cardus]

Come on more often then.

Too busy, mate.