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For Australians

Do you believe Muttiah Muralitharan throws, in any guise?


  • Total voters
    51

nightprowler10

Global Moderator
Witness England losing a test to Pakistan, heavily influenced by a bowler later decided to have been cheating in that match. How are England to be compensated for the umpire's inability to enforce the laws on the field and stop said bowler from bowling and taking wickets?
I hate to nitpick, but that was one of my favorite Test matches and whenever somebody says this I feel compelled to respond. [copies and pastes] Just to clarify here (not for the first time either), from all reports from late 2005, Shabbir was doing fine and not bending his arm over the limit through the first inning when he took 4 of his 5 wickets. He started throwing in the second inning (end of day 4) when he got Trescothick. One wicket was all that he took. A case can be made that it may or may not have affected the result, but the point is that his action was fine through the first inning.[/copies and pastes]
 

Richard

Cricket Web Staff Member
Missed this what with Voltman's stupid post below it...
Right, that's essentially the problem I have with the current laws. Frankly, I don't care what precise degree of flexion X or Y bowler has when tested in a lab situation or even in a match. The chucking laws, much like a lot of the other subjective, interpretive laws in cricket, have to be designed in such a way that they can be enforced by an on-field umpire.

For instance, in LBW decisions, the umpire is sometimes called on to decide whether or not the batsman "attempted to play the ball". That's clearly a subjective call and cannot be proven by any sort of scientific analysis, yet umpires make it in basically every match. Chucking should be treated in the same way. As it is, it is a joke of a law, and utterly unenforcable. No bowler will EVER be called for chucking, no matter how blatant, until the law is changed, and bowlers that do chuck even under the letter of the current law will be able to do so and influence matches. Witness England losing a test to Pakistan, heavily influenced by a bowler later decided to have been cheating in that match. How are England to be compensated for the umpire's inability to enforce the laws on the field and stop said bowler from bowling and taking wickets?
And how are the team to be compensated who lost a Test because they have bowler X no-balled out of the game because the Umpire has made a gross error in adjudging - on his whim, with nothing but the faulty human eye to make his guess - said bowler to be chucking?

It works both ways. And given that human eyes are very likely to make mistakes when guessing whether a bowler is throwing or not by themselves, there's far, far more at stake if you allow a throwing-no-ball call to be made than if you don't.

I'm very, very happy that the ability to decide whether a ball is a chuck or not as a game is going on has been removed.
 

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