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Cricket Web: All-Time Legend
Now, it follows logically that being in a team with weak batting reduces the opportunity to take wickets in the second innings, which should lower a bowler's balls and wickets per match. This is because there will be more losses by an innings, declarations or a high number of wickets against that team, due to relative batting strength.
Now, taking an apples to apples comparison (pace bowler to pace bowler) in might be expected that a bowler in a weaker batting team such as Hadlee's New Zealand (27) compared to a stronger batting team such as McGrath's Australia (37). Yet it will be found that Hadlee bowled more balls (255 vs 235) and had a higher WpM than McGrath (5 vs 4.5).
Now the question: is the 'second innings denial' effect significant at test level? For good to great bowlers (say, average under 28, 100+ wickets since WWII), is there any kind of direct relationship between WpM/BpM and team batting average? And is it the same for pace and spin bowlers? Or are other factors more important?
Now, taking an apples to apples comparison (pace bowler to pace bowler) in might be expected that a bowler in a weaker batting team such as Hadlee's New Zealand (27) compared to a stronger batting team such as McGrath's Australia (37). Yet it will be found that Hadlee bowled more balls (255 vs 235) and had a higher WpM than McGrath (5 vs 4.5).
Now the question: is the 'second innings denial' effect significant at test level? For good to great bowlers (say, average under 28, 100+ wickets since WWII), is there any kind of direct relationship between WpM/BpM and team batting average? And is it the same for pace and spin bowlers? Or are other factors more important?