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Yeah its probably been explained before, but can someone clarify it for me Yeah its probably been explained before, but can someone clarify it for me
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Old 15-02-2006, 07:49 PM   #1 (permalink)
cpr
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Yeah its probably been explained before, but can someone clarify it for me
Why did i 'Lose' this match?

Not too bothered about the result really, but i'm wondering how it bases its decision.

Both sides finished 276/9, I had a higher run rate throughout, but lose on run rate

Only thing i can think of is last over. Theres was 7 (for 3 wkt), mine was 5 (no loss)


Ta muchos people
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Old 18-02-2006, 08:14 PM   #2 (permalink)
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I have found that the team batting First always wins in that situation.
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Old 19-02-2006, 02:03 AM   #3 (permalink)
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It's supposed to be highest score at 15 overs
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Old 19-02-2006, 04:06 AM   #4 (permalink)
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ya, i think thats it Jamee
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Old 21-02-2006, 08:12 PM   #5 (permalink)
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jamee999
It's supposed to be highest score at 15 overs
If you look at the Run Rate Equation, England are about 0/60 where Sri Lanka are 1/51.
Every time i have tied like this in international games the team batting 1st wins.
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