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Batsman bowled out on full toss ball above waist

Rvroy83

Cricket Spectator
Hi,

We play tennis ball cricket in the USA. Our team participates in the biggest tennis cricket league -TCA in the Bay Area.

We are unclear about one ICC rule , so hoping to get some guidance.
If a slow-medium pace (approx 55 mph) has bowled a full toss ball that looked going above the waist but ended up hitting the stumps , should the batsman be adjudged OUT. Keep in mind that it was his first full toss above the waist high. Umpire ruled it as NOT OUT.

A follow up question I have is - can umpire adjudge a delivery ‘no ball ‘ before the ball has hit the stumps or went past the stumps?

Thank you,
Roy
 
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cnerd123

likes this
Above waist height ball when hits the stumps, it's not called a no ball.
Why would you say that?

I'm not sure on the ICC Playing Conditions w/regards to waist high fulltosses, but as per the MCC Laws, it would be a no ball even if it does hit the stumps.

You call no-ball once it has crossed the popping crease (and practically that makes it hard to call it before it hits the stumps), and it is considered to have been a no-ball from the moment of release from the bowler's hand iirc.
 

Midwinter

State Captain
above the waist full tosses are deemed no balls in order to prevent the bowling of head high deliveries to injure or intimidate the batsman.

A full toss that hits the stumps would in most cases not be above waist height on reaching the batsman.

Therefore it would not be a no ball imho.

An umpire would be able to call it no ball if it was above the waist before reaching the batsman given that the trajectory wouldnt change suddenly in flight.

all this is my reading of the rules.
hth
☺
 

trundler

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Also a waist high ball could only hit the stumps if the batsman advances down the pitch in which case it isn't a no ball anyway
 

ankitj

Hall of Fame Member
Why would you say that?

I'm not sure on the ICC Playing Conditions w/regards to waist high fulltosses, but as per the MCC Laws, it would be a no ball even if it does hit the stumps.

You call no-ball once it has crossed the popping crease (and practically that makes it hard to call it before it hits the stumps), and it is considered to have been a no-ball from the moment of release from the bowler's hand iirc.
I know that was a rule long time back at least. Don't know if it has changed. If it hits the stump, it's given out and it's not called a no-ball. Probably rationale was that if the ball was going to hit the stumps it was not unplayable or bowled with an intention to take an unfair advantage on batsman or to harm the batsman. Same as how even a very wide ball is not wide if batsman manages to get bat on it.
 

Starfighter

Cricket Web: All-Time Legend
Fwiw Craig McDermott got his first test wicket with a very high full toss played onto the stumps. That was in 1985 though.
 

Jarquis

Cricket Web: All-Time Legend
Also a waist high ball could only hit the stumps if the batsman advances down the pitch in which case it isn't a no ball anyway
What if you bowled a giant moon ball over the batsman’s head that landed on the bails?

Any ball which would have passed the striker, while upright in his stance on the popping crease, above the waist at the waist will be deemed to be a no-ball. Whether the batsman runs down the wicket or turns around and runs to fine leg is immaterial.
 

Black_Warrior

Cricketer Of The Year
above the waist full tosses are deemed no balls in order to prevent the bowling of head high deliveries to injure or intimidate the batsman.

A full toss that hits the stumps would in most cases not be above waist height on reaching the batsman.

Therefore it would not be a no ball imho.


What if the batsman is just barely taller than the stumps?
 

Bijed

International Regular
Also a waist high ball could only hit the stumps if the batsman advances down the pitch in which case it isn't a no ball anyway
I've heard that before, but can't see anything official on it - closest I can find is "A fast high full pitched ball shall be defined as a ball that passes, or would have passed, on the full above waist height of a Batsman standing upright at the crease." (source may not be up to date, however).

Also, can't you get away with up to shoulder height if you're a slower bowler? Which would mean that in the OP's case it would have been a legal delivery (assuming it wasn't an insane moonball)?

Edit: found this in the ICC Playing Conditions

Any delivery, which passes or would have passed, without pitching, above waist height of the striker standing upright at the popping crease, is to be deemed to be unfair, whether or not it is likely to inflict physical injury on the striker. If the bowler bowls such a delivery the umpire shall immediately call and signal No ball.

If, in the opinion of the umpire, such a delivery is considered likely to inflict physical injury on the batsman by its speed and direction, it shall be considered dangerous. When the ball is dead the umpire shall caution the bowler, indicating that this is a first and final warning. The umpire shall also inform the other umpire, the captain of the fielding side and the batsmen of what has occurred. This caution shall apply to that bowler throughout the innings
Confirms my first sentence, disproves my second. However, I guess a spinner might not get warned for a full toss that's just above waist height due to their relative lack of speed? Whereas I'd imagine a pacer would always get warned simply by virtue of their pace making such deliveries inherently much more dangerous
 
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OverratedSanity

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Spinners can definitely be warned. Does no one remember Abdir Rehman bowling 3 in a row and being banned from bowling again in the innings? One of the funniest things ever to happen on the field.
 

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