Looking for a clarification on a rule...

[deeps]

No ball imo

However, the people saying that it would affect the shot the batsman played - wrong. For a front foot no ball, yes that is the case, but for an above waist high full toss, by the time the umpire called no ball, the batsman's 'opportunity' at playing the ball, would have been over. The ball would have passed the batsman by the time the no ball call was made.

 

[Umpire Money]

We have this happen many times must just be the grade i play but we have had the decisions go both ways.
As an ex - umpire i thought it was out but re reading this i think its not out but here are the rules which are a bit ambiguous.

the rules are here
http://www.therulesofcricket.co.uk/

b) Bowling of high full pitched balls
(i) Any delivery, other than a slow paced one, which passes or would have passed on the full above waist height of the striker standing upright at the crease is to be deemed dangerous and unfair, whether or not it is likely to inflict physical injury on the striker.
(ii) A slow delivery which passes or would have passed on the full above shoulder height of the striker standing upright at the crease is to be deemed dangerous and unfair, whether or not it is likely to inflict physical injury on the striker.

and

1. Out Bowled
(a) The striker is out Bowled if his wicket is put down by a ball delivered by the bowler, not being a No ball, even if it first touches his bat or person.

 

[silentstriker]

Gotri Road. How about you?

Ajwa road, before I moved to the US.

 

[marc71178]

No ball imo

However, the people saying that it would affect the shot the batsman played - wrong.

No, what I said was that as soon as a no ball is called, then the batsman can play any shot.

He could therefore claim that his shot was solely because it was a no ball, hence if the no ball was then overturned he wouldn't have played the same shot, hence he can't be out bowled.

 

[silentstriker]

No, what I said was that as soon as a no ball is called, then the batsman can play any shot.

He could therefore claim that his shot was solely because it was a no ball, hence if the no ball was then overturned he wouldn't have played the same shot, hence he can't be out bowled.

Right, what deeps is saying that by the time the no ball was given, the ball had already passed the batsmans ability to play it, so he wouldn't have had the chance to change the shot.

In any case, a no ball was given, so no ball it should stay.

 

[Sudeep]

Ajwa road, before I moved to the US.

Cool. When did you move there? I'm moving to the US this month. To California.

 

[silentstriker]

Cool. When did you move there? I'm moving to the US this month. To California.

About 10 years back. Living in philadelphia.

 

[deeps]

Right, what deeps is saying that by the time the no ball was given, the ball had already passed the batsmans ability to play it, so he wouldn't have had the chance to change the shot.

yup that's what i meant. Front foot no balls often give you enough time. Waist heigh full tosses don't.


Either way, as silentstriker said, the umpire ruled no ball , that should be final decision. If it's one of those decisions that can be interpreted either way, just accept the umps first decision.

If it's blatantly wrong (full toss above head for example that gets caught), then i would argue it

 

[Tomm NCCC]

Once the umpire has given it, he should stick with that initial decision (I take it you didnt have square leg or 3rd umpire)

You know what, just flip a coin next time