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Thread: Less European representation

  1. #76
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    Lucky Europeans.

  2. #77
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    Also, evolution wise we have all come from Africa.

  3. #78
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    Now it's euro. World cup is over.

  4. #79
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    Quote Originally Posted by GIMH View Post
    Maybe we should reduce the European representation so someone else has a chance
    Aside from the very first World Cup, there's always been at least one European side in a final, (not counting 1950 as technically there was no final that year).

    3 of the last 4 finals, this year included, have been all European affairs.


  5. #80
    Norwood's on Fire GIMH's Avatar
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    I would suspect the bulk of tournaments held outside the Americas have seen all European finals?

    Obviously on the flipside there’s only been one European winner in the Americas but plenty of finalists

  6. #81
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    I think Europe have been producing much better technical midfielders than the SA teams for a while now, and it is starting to show. Since '94, Brazil have been trying to get away with playing water-carriers and spoilers in midfield and Argentina haven't had a great one since the Aimar/Riquelme days, and they couldn't get over the line with those guys. All the top European teams are pretty well stocked with good central midfielders who can dictate games.
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  7. #82
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    South America produces better forwards than Europe on the whole though, so maybe that's the quid pro quo.

  8. #83
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    Quote Originally Posted by GIMH View Post
    I would suspect the bulk of tournaments held outside the Americas have seen all European finals?

    Obviously on the flipside there’s only been one European winner in the Americas but plenty of finalists
    Argentina in 90, Brazil in 98 made finals in Europe. Other than that it is going back before I was born. Brazil won in Sweden in 58 didn't they as Pele was only 17.

  9. #84
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    I reckon that it is a vicious cycle. Traditionally UEFA has always had a Lion's share (relative to actual membership) of World Cup slots and hosting rights. This has given its members a higher probability of outperforming other confederations and therefore justifying having more slots than other confederations which leads to outperforming other confederations...you get what I am driving at right?

    Case in point. Sweden 1958, a 16 team tournament with how many participants from outside Europe? Pretty steep odds for a non European nation, to win the whole thing right? Not that I have exact numbers is but I understand that that up until the 1970s and the explosion of newly independent African and Asian Nations the World Cup was pretty much mostly Europe plus a handful of Western hemisphere footballing powerhouses. When you factor that in the analysis of performance it is almost a certainty that European Nations win the bulk of early world cups and establish a performance based case to always have the biggest share of World Cup slots.
    Last edited by andruid; 07-07-2018 at 03:34 AM. Reason: more details
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  10. #85
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    The other confederations have had decent numbers in since the world cup was expanded and it is a rare event for them to actually have a good team involved. Can't blame european sides for being better after so long can we.

  11. #86
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    Quote Originally Posted by andruid View Post
    I reckon that it is a vicious cycle. Traditionally UEFA has always had a Lion's share (relative to actual membership) of World Cup slots and hosting rights. This has given its members a higher probability of outperforming other confederations and therefore justifying having more slots than other confederations which leads to outperforming other confederations...you get what I am driving at right?
    Nope.

    Europe outperforms other confederations because Europe is better.

    Most of the African teams that are successful tend to piggy back on Europe (specifically France) as well.

  12. #87
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    Quote Originally Posted by GIMH View Post
    I would suspect the bulk of tournaments held outside the Americas have seen all European finals?

    Obviously on the flipside there’s only been one European winner in the Americas but plenty of finalists
    From memory:

    1934 Italy beat Czechoslovakia
    1938 Italy beat Hungary
    1954 West Germany beat Hungary
    1958 Brazil beat Sweden
    1966 England beat West Germany
    1974 West Germany beat Netherlands
    1982 Italy beat West Germany
    1990 West Germany beat Argentina
    1998 France beat Brazil
    2006 Italy beat France
    2018 France/Belgium v England/Sweden/Russia/Croatia

    Americas

    1930 Uruguay beat Argentina
    1950 Uruguay beat Brazil (technically not a final)
    1962 Brazil beat Czechoslovakia
    1970 Brazil beat Italy
    1978 Argentina beat Netherlands
    1986 Argentina beat West Germany
    1994 Brazil beat Italy
    2014 Germany beat Argentina

    2002 Brazil beat Germany (Asia)
    2010 Spain beat Netherlands (Africa)

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  14. #89
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    Quote Originally Posted by Furball View Post
    Nope.

    Europe outperforms other confederations because Europe is better.

    Most of the African teams that are successful tend to piggy back on Europe (specifically France) as well.
    1. Instead of simply blowing off my argument how about without any kind of consideration, how about you actually calculate the odds of a European team winning, each world cup based on proportion of competitors and show me whether or not I have a case.

    2. I could also make a case that by controlling the economic resources of the third world for so long, actively attracting immigrants from other Nation to participate in the post WW2 economy reconstruction, and then having extensive scouting networks to poach talent from all over the world that can be naturalized if they are good enough it's actually Europe piggy backing on others.

    It would be a massive digression though.

  15. #90
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    Odds based on number of competitors from a region presupposes that each team has an equal chance of winning, something that is quite unquestionably false so your whole argument is flawed.
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